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Re: base year compensation
>From: Shailendra Mishra <shailendra_mishra@yahoo.com>
>
>There are two scenarios here:
>
>If it's a trade, then one doesn't need any cap room as long as the
>salaries are within 15% (or is it 10%?) of each other. Sprewell for
>Starks and others <Spre was a 3rd year base year compensation >player>.
>
>If it is not a trade where the taker has cap room then all they need is to
>fit the base year cap. The hard part in a base year compensation player is
>to get something suitable in return because of very low cap nos. - Mishra
Well, we know the salaries are 1/2 to 1/3 apart, because that's the whole
point of the discussion, right? It seems like you're saying that the
Celtics could turn around and send Walker to a capped out team like the
Lakers, who would only have to send back half his salary. This surprises me
because it seems like a way that a rich team could go further over the cap
to get a very good player. Maybe the player hasn't lived up to their big
contract, but the rich team doesn't care. The other team would be willing
to do the deal just for cap reasons. Ie, how else would they be able to
free up 4 or 5 million in cap space? Maybe they regret signing the big
contract, because they can only afford that for one player. It's an
interesting loophole and, if you're right, I'd be surprised if you don't see
it happen at some point.
>
>PS: Regarding base year cap nos: The parenthisis indicate
>multiplication and , indicates a tuple.
I don't know what a "tuple" is, but I'm pretty sure what a missing
parenthesis looks like, and it's impossible to tell what's being maximized
and what's being multiplied in your formula, isn't it?
= max(1/2(base year salary, 2 previous years salary)
^here or ^here
Also, is that the sum of the previous two year's salary?
Jim
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